Christian Living

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Hello and welcome to the 4th segment of 'Is water baptism a prerequisite for Salvation?' Let's take a look at another reference given by some of the 'water baptism saves you crowd' to justify their views. (All Scripture is taken from the King James Bible).

Jas 2:14 What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?
Jas 2:15 If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food,
Jas 2:16 And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be ye warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what doth it profit?
Jas 2:17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.
Jas 2:18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.
Jas 2:19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
Jas 2:20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?
Jas 2:21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
Jas 2:22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
Jas 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
Jas 2:24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
Jas 2:25 Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?
Jas 2:26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

Some of the 'water baptism saves you crowd' state 'faith without works is dead', and therefore, 'Salvation' without the 'work' of 'water baptism' is dead or non-existent. To put it in simple terms, they claim the above passage of James states 'you aren't saved unless you've been water baptized'. So have a quick read through the passage above, looking at the sections I have highlighted and you will begin to see how a person might come to the idea that this at first implies 'works' are needed for salvation.

When a person's mind is on a specific subject, it's easy to flick through the Bible quoting references that would seem to apply to that subject, but once again, Scripture is to be 'rightly divided' (2 Tim 2:15), and I am about to throw an extremely embarrassing spanner in the works of those who claim this passage to justify their view. Here's the spanner, James 2:14-26 does not list 'water baptism', the word used is 'works'. If the 'water baptism saves you crowd' use this, they are not only claiming 'water baptism saves', but every other 'work' in Christianity is also needed to obtain Salvation. Wow! Now they have really bitten off more than they can chew in using this! How embarrassing to quote this passage or even a verse of it, and apply it to the work of 'water baptism' alone. Now there's a real insight into the understanding of some people's Bible interpretation, and there's only one thing left to say regarding learning under such teachers 'reprove them and if they remain unrepentant, get out now!'

Now I could leave it right there and move on, because I have already defeated such a silly argument scripturally, but I'm not going to do that, I'm also going to interpret the entire passage to show us exactly what James is speaking about. So come with me as we take a look at what James is actually saying here. Firstly, this book is written to believing Jews (Jam 1:1), those who are seen as 'already saved' (Jam 1:2, 16). James in chapter 1 is teaching these 'Christians' they must be 'doers of the Word' (Jam 1:22-27). But notice these people are 'ALREADY SAVED', and the passage is addressed to THESE believers, and THEIR behaviour, so this has absolutely nothing to do with obtaining Salvation, that is done by grace through faith (Eph 2:8) period! These believers are then corrected for showing partiality (Jam 2:1-13), and then James continues his rebuke towards a disobedient Christianity (Jam 2:14-26). So we can clearly see that the actual context is towards 'Christians' who are not walking as they should in the Lord. It has absolutely nothing to do with 'Salvation by works'. Now that we have our context, let's take a look at what James is arguing for:

Jas 2:14 What doth it profit, my brethren, though a man say he hath faith, and have not works? can faith save him?

James is arguing with whom? 'Brethren', people who are 'already saved', and his argument is against those amongst them who are being 'disobedient to good Christian works' which should be proceeding from their Christian life. He argues about 'profit' (benefit, advantage, gain) for 'THE CHRISTIAN'. In chapter 1 verse 25 James teaches about this 'profiting', this blessing that the Christian receives in 'DOING' the works of Christ. Jas 1:25 But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.

In verse 14 James is basically stating 'if a man says he has the Christian faith and yet doesn't have any good works to show for it, is that the kind of faith that saves?', or, 'does the person have faith at all, seeing they have no fruit to prove it?' That is the basic crux of James' comment. This has nothing at all to do with obtaining salvation, rather an argument strongly advocating for obedient works to proceed from the one claiming to have faith, to testify of their salvation. Let's keep reading as James' argument becomes clearer:

Jas 2:15 If a brother or sister be naked, and destitute of daily food,
Jas 2:16 And one of you say unto them, Depart in peace, be ye warmed and filled; notwithstanding ye give them not those things which are needful to the body; what doth it profit?

Here James clarifies what he means in verse 14 through an example. The context once again is about a 'Christian' (one already saved), doing the 'works' of Christ. Verse 15 reveals the type of 'works' James is also referring to, speaking about 'feeding' and 'clothing' another person in need, especially a brother or sister. Verse 16 argues against those who wish blessing upon a person, and yet fails to provide for them. James states 'what doth it profit', simply put 'what's the point of your blessing them without providing for them? The implied answer 'Nothing!'

Jas 2:17 Even so faith, if it hath not works, is dead, being alone.

James argues with these believers who are 'NOT DOING' the works of Christ. He tells them 'faith' is presumed 'dead' if it doesn't have 'works'. This is no different to what Jesus taught us in Matt 7:20 that we would recognize true converts from false ones by the fruit's they produce. Notice here also that James teaches us 'faith' and 'works' are not the same thing? They are two completely separate things (refer to my first article on 'faith' and 'works' being separate for more information). So once again, the context is referring to 'WORKS AFTER A PERSON IS SAVED' not 'how to obtain salvation'.

Jas 2:18 Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works.

James uses this next example, to further help believers understand his argument about a faith that produces no works. I really love this whole passage of James, because it brings in a perfect balance of Scripture which upholds true Christianity. This verse especially rebukes anyone who claims they have faith (are a Christian), and yet don't show it in their life. How about we all learn from what James is saying here and start showing people Christ in us, rather than running around talking like we know Him and yet never following His Word obediently.

Jas 2:19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.
Jas 2:20 But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead?

James argues repeatedly against a Christianity that testifies to believing on Christ yet doesn't bear fruit, stating 'even devils believe in God'. The implied understanding is, although devils believe in God, that doesn't mean they are saved, and nor should anyone who fails to obey Christ and bring forth Biblical fruits which evidence such (Matt 7:20). Then James goes on to combine this thought with his ongoing rebuke of, 'faith without works is dead'.

Jas 2:21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?
Jas 2:22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
Jas 2:23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
Jas 2:24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.

James now draws on scriptural examples to reinforce his point. He states of Abraham as being 'justified by works'. This justification is not in the salvation sense, but rather in the sense of 'seen to be a believer', by his works in obeying God, when he offered Isaac upon the altar. Abraham was justified in his faith, by performing the 'works' that proceeded from it. Notice also, that James once again clearly defines 'faith' as separate from 'works' in verse 22. He shows them as two completely separate things and ending his comment implying 'perfect faith' is SEEN through 'works' (v22). Verse 23 and 24 is easy to understand in this context through its own references. Take a look at Romans 4:1-6:

Rom 4:1 What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found?
Rom 4:2 For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
Rom 4:3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Rom 4:4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
Rom 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 4:6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,

From the writings of the Apostle Paul we can clearly see it is 'faith' alone, and not 'works' that saves us in Christ, so we absolutely know that James is in no way referring to OBTAINING salvation in Christ, rather justifying that one is a believer through evidenced actions of faith. Now take a look at Gen 15:6:

Gen 15:5 And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be.
Gen 15:6 And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness.

I have only listed verses 5 & 6 here, but be sure to read from verse 1 and you will see that 'faith' (belief) in the Lord 'ALONE' was counted for righteousness, and not a mention of 'works'. So once again, we know that James is again in no way referring to obtaining salvation in Christ. Now look at Gen 22:18:

Gen 22:18 And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice.

For rooms sake I haven't listed the full passage. So be sure to start at verse 1 of chapter 22 and continue down to verse 18 to get the full story. So what is James saying here in quoting all of this to these believers? Simple, James shows us that Abraham in Genesis 15 appropriated 'faith' which is the 'substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not yet seen' (Heb 11:1) in God's Word. In other words 'faith is as good as works', its concrete substance, but is never an excuse for lack of works, to the contrary, lack of works reveals a problem with a person's faith, and that is exactly what James is arguing in the passage. Abraham's faith was then attributed to him as 'RIGHTEOUSNESS WITHOUT WORKS'. It wasn't until Genesis 22 that Abraham would have the opportunity to 'WROUGHT' (James 2:22 'co-labour') his faith through, and by 'works', in taking Isaac to the altar totally trusting that God's Word to Him was sure, no matter even if he killed the boy whom the promise was to come through (Heb 11:17-19). And thus James' comment in verse 22 of 'faith made perfect' or 'perfected faith' is fulfilled. Abraham fulfilled Gen 15 through his 'works' thus 'proving' (justifying) his faith in God. In its context then James 2:24 tells us a Christian is VISUALLY JUSTIFIED as having salvation by proceeding works, and not only a confession of faith.

Jas 2:25 Likewise also was not Rahab the harlot justified by works, when she had received the messengers, and had sent them out another way?
Jas 2:26 For as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also.

Again James uses another scriptural illustration of the 'faith declaration (justified) through works'. He uses 'Rahab' who 'FIRST BELIEVED' (had faith), that Israel was given the land by the Lord, and her belief was then 'SEEN (justified) THROUGH WORKS' in that she protected the spy's, ensuring their safety (Jos 2:1-21). Verse 26 concludes James' rebuke towards those Christians who fail to be 'doers of the Word' stating, 'as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also'. And once again, 'faith' and 'works' are shown to be two separate and distinct things, just as the physical 'body' and the 'spirit' of man are two separate and distinct things.

Folks, we have just studied the passage of James 2:14-26 in the light of context and the rest of Scripture, and no contradiction within scripture occurs when having done so, the same cannot be said from some of the 'water baptism saves you crowd's' interpretation. I have also quoted James' scriptural sources he uses as examples to clarify exactly what he is saying here, and shown from their direct references how righteousness was attributed before actions occurred, but by far the most compelling argument I have given is the fact that 'water baptism' is not the totality of the word 'works'. Thus, for anyone to lay claim to James 2:14-26 stating: 'water baptism is a pre-requisite for salvation', must also state 'ALL CHRISTIAN WORKS SAVE US' and not just the work of water baptism. If such is true, how can we actually know when we've done enough to be saved? What happens to these Christians James was writing to who had failed in performing good works? Are we ever to perform before we are good enough to be truly saved? As you can see, I have seriously embarrassed anyone using this passage to justify water baptism as necessary for Salvation in Christ. It is both ridiculous and absurd to state such, not to mention out of context and theologically wrong!
Be sure to reread my commentary on James 2:14-26, it is a rebuke towards anyone professing to be a Christian who doesn't justify so by the fruits of Biblical obedience.

I finish with another passage of Scripture, which clearly reveals to us that we are saved by grace through faith alone, and not by any 'works' of the flesh we may do.

Rom 3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Rom 3:22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
Rom 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Rom 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
Rom 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
Rom 3:26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

Again and again in these studies we see the words 'faith', 'believe', 'justified', 'freely', 'grace', 'redemption' and 'blood' when it comes to being saved. 'What does the above passage speak about'? Is it 'salvation through water baptism', or even 'works'? Or is it, 'Salvation through faith in the God given gracious blood of Jesus Christ'? The latter is the only Biblically correct answer.

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