This is the continuation of the corrections I began to make of the updated version of the NIV starting with the Gospel of John. (Starting from the last chapter and verse where I left off before Intermission.)
* John 2:23- 'Now while he was in Jerusalem, at the Passover Festival, many people saw the signs he was performing and believed in his name.'
Again, as I explained earlier regarding John 1:12, for it to be written ..'many people believed in his name.' takes the reader away from the purpose for his deeds and causes them to believe that the miracles was to make people worship Jesus. Jesus himself disregarded the importance of the non believers to believe him, but only stressed the importance that they at least believed in God's WORKS. The author of John wants the reader to reflect on each passage to allow them to find the answers hidden between the lines, sort of speak. So, the verse should be written more so like this, 'many people saw the signs he was performing and believed in God.' because the sole purpose for Jesus's miracles was not to turn all mankind to him but to draw all of their focus to himself in order to turn them to God. His purpose was to turn the hearts of the children to the Father, not to the Son. "The Son does his father's work in order to gather the flock to return the sheep to his Father." Such was the concept of all the four gospels. Jesus was not gathering sheep for himself, as he always claimed he was gathering the sheep for God. This is why wording is important when it comes to displaying the message the author was trying to deliver in the book of John. Incorrect wording can guide a reader to misunderstand the true purpose for the gospel and when the wording causes the reader to misunderstand the main point of the story, the book becomes useless and is not used for the purpose in which it was written.
* John 2:24 & 25- '..But Jesus would not entrust himself to them, for he knew all people. He did not need any testimony about mankind, for he knew what was in each person.'
After reading this, I found myself uttering out loud, "What?" This passage has clearly been changed to mean something different than what it originally meant from the time it was written. The first sentence does not connect with the rest of the paragraph, which tells me the changes made does not make the entire paragraph come together. The original passage was written more like this, starting from the end of verse 23, '..many people saw the signs he was performing and believed in God. But Jesus did not trust their faith, for he knew their hearts were unfaithful; this was why he didn't rely on man's testimony because God testified on his behalf.' This way, verse 24 & 25 connects with 23, because the author wanted to make it clear that God was testifying on Christ's behalf through the work of miracles but because Christ knew the hearts of men were unfaithful, he could not trust them to testify on his behalf even though they began to believe in God because of him, and so, he continues to rely on God to testify.
The apostle Paul wrote a similar verse in one of his letters found in Romans 3:3-4. 'What if some were unfaithful? Will their unfaithfulness nullify God's faithfulness? Not at all! Let God be true and every man a liar..'
The author of John wanted the reader ask to themselves that if Christ Himself could not rely on mankind's testimony of him, then why should they rely on man's testimony of him? He wanted the reader to understand that if Christ only chose to rely on God's testimony, then so should they. For, apostle Paul confirms that the hearts of men are unfaithful and man should not rely on them because when they fall away, they think God falls away too but he is telling his followers in his letter, that this is not so. Because truth is, every man should be a Witness of God and not just rely on the testimony of mankind. Because even though God is faithful and honest doesn't always mean His followers are those too.
* John 3:5- '...no one can enter the Kingdom of God unless they are born of water and the Spirit..'
Again, the gospel of John does not focus on the physical aspects of God but only on the spiritual which tells me the entire verse was mistranslated, an simple error one can easily make. The passage is not 'of water' but rather 'of heaven'. The verse should actually be '...no one can enter the Kingdom of God unless they are born of the Spirit, from Heaven'. This then, flows in uniform with the following verses 'The flesh gives birth to flesh but the spirit gives birth to spirit.' And Christ specifies that mankind must be born not just of any spirit but only the Spirit of God.
* John 3:8- 'The wind blows wherever it pleases. You hear its sound, but you cannot tell where it comes from or where it is going. So it is, with everyone born of the Spirit."
I think that the scholars tried to make the best translation that 'sounded' most wise or poetic. This may be poetic but the translation is wrong. It confuses the reader because the verse holds no true meaning which is why when most readers read this verse, they become trapped trying to find understanding in it. The real verse should have been written, 'The Spirit goes to the one it is pleased with. You can sense its presence, even though you don't know where it comes from or where it is going just like the birth of the wind.'
This verse is especially important because it tells the reader that the spirit of God can be anywhere and the author helps the reader to understand the concept of being 'born again in the Spirit' by comparing the presence of the Spirit, using the wind as a metaphor. Because just as Nicodemus wasn't sure how a person can be born again or even know when they are born again, the author wanted to teach the reader that Christ was basically telling him that they won't know these things and its not important to know, but only know that God will be with them and that's the only thing that's important. The birth of the wind concept refers to the absence of the "whens" and "hows", but feeling the wind refers to the awakening of the consciousness that God is present, that, they know He is there; and it's the only sign a man is given to truly know if God is with him.
When people are born in the flesh, they do not remember how they got here nor understand how they were made. They only know the obvious factor: that the fact they exist, is the only sign they're given to know they have been physically born. It is the same concept with everyone born of the spirit and that's what this entire paragraph tried to explain. Nicodemus represented all mankind who tried to look for physical signs of being born of God or having come from God, to know for sure whether or not he truly was with God or was a man of God, just as many believers do today. They question themselves, doubt themselves because unlike the physical birth, there are no visible signs of God being with them. But Christ revealed to Nicodemus that the only way a man can truly be certain if he is born of God, is by sensing God's presence. For, if God is with them, it is because He is pleased with them and just because they don't know when or how He got there, the moment they can sense Him, is a sign of being born. This is also sign that his heart has opened its eyes to see God.
Therefore, John 3:5-8 should read: 'Jesus answered, "I tell you the truth, no one can enter the Kingdom of God unless he is born of the Spirit from Heaven. The flesh gives birth to flesh and the spirit gives birth to spirit. You shouldn't be surprised when I tell you 'You must be born again'. The Spirit goes to the one it is pleased with. You can sense its presence even though you don't know where it comes from or where it is going just like the birth of the wind."'
* John 3:9-15- '"How can this be?" Nicodemus asked. "You are Israel's teacher," said Jesus "and do you not understand these things? Very truly I tell you, we speak of what we know, and we testify to what we have seen, but still you people do not accept our testimony. I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things? No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven - the Son of Man. Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the wilderness, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes may have eternal life in him."'
I don't know why the editors made the plural possessive and then changed it, for instance, "...WE testify to what WE have seen, but still YOU people do not accept OUR testimony." and then they make it nonplural in the following verses "..I have spoke to you of.." it makes it as if Jesus' s mind is jumping all over the place, as if to first announce he is speaking on behalf of a group and then speaking on behalf of himself, which is incorrect. I want you to ask yourself, do the following verses also make sense? The reference made in John 3:14 & 15 is in error. Those who made the revisions to the gospel clearly didn't understand the analogy the author was trying to use in order to help the reader understand. Therefore, John 3:9-15 should have been written like this:
'"How is can this be?" Nicodemus asked. "You are Israel's teacher," said Jesus "don't you understand these things? I tell you the truth, you only speak of what you know and testify based on what you have seen, but you do not accept other testimonies because they are not of earthly things. What I tell you is of heavenly things. No one knows anything of heaven unless they are born of heaven. And just as Moses lifted the serpent up in the desert, so also those born of God will be raised to eternal life." This is the correct revision to the verses of John 3:9-15.
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