Does The NT Speak for Itself?

[pathlightfinder]

There have been many articles written that delve into the early evidences for the Scriptures. Many folks, for or against the Bible, contend that the events in the New Testament where recorded after the events took place. The debate is often about how long after. I may have missed it, but I have never seen one that drew attention to the fact that the Scriptures themselves may have addressed this issue.
In both Matthew 24:15 and Mark 13:14 Jesus ends by basically saying: whoever reads let him understand. Now, most folks have taken this to be a reference to the prophecy in the Book of Daniel he was discussing. There are a couple of problems with this interpretation to me.
First, in every other instance that Jesus references a formerly written document, he begins by basically saying: haven’t you ever read. Second, he never follows it by saying: let him understand. Third, consider two things. The audience he was speaking to and the average life expectancy at that time. If Jesus was talking to folks there with Him that were already old enough to be able to have read the Book of Daniel, how many could have been expected to be alive when what He was referring to took place. This if He was referring to the coming destruction of the Temple by the Romans in 70 A.D. – forty years later. It hardly seems likely that many would be around. One of the few people believed to have lived that long is the author of Revelation; and he definitely, in Revelation 1:3, makes it clear that he expects people to read what he is saying.
Jesus was not one to waste words; and, this issue is recorded twice, by two different authors. My understanding has always been that the more times an issue is mentioned in the Bible the more emphasis is placed on it. We also know that there were literate men among His disciples.
Most of the “famous” commentaries were written before the modern trend to question the origin of the Bible, so perhaps they did not see these passages in the same light as I do. I know we have some pretty knowledgeable folks here, so before I go out on a limb writing about this elsewhere, I am putting it out here for your thoughts.

In Brotherly Love,

Wayne

https://thepathtolight.com/
http://christianssearchandrescue.blogspot.com/

PS – I am aware that many would still reject my hypothesis as internal evidence.

[Hoomi]

There is also a school of thought that the "let the reader understand" statement was an interjection or parenthetical statement added by the Gospel writers, and it wasn't actually said by Jesus. If I recall correctly, the ancient Greek that the Gospels were written in did not include many of the modern punctuation marks, much like the ancient Hebrew did not include vowels (the vowel pointers were added by the scribes during the Babylonian exile, so that the people of Israel would not forget how to pronounce the words of the Holy Scriptures).

This school of thought makes sense, in that it would have seemed strange for a speaker to address the audience with a statement like, "let the reader understand." Those listening would have found it confusing, since they were hearing the words and not reading them. However, for one transcribing the words into written form, and wanting to add an emphasis that might not come through the text otherwise, it would make sense.

Granted, this is just one theory, and while I see the sense of it, I certainly cannot be dogmatic about it and say this is absolutely the correct explanation. I offer it as food for thought.

[pathlightfinder]

Hoomi,
Thanks for the feedback. I have seen that postulated before - in Robertson’s Word Pictures - and do consider it a valid position as well. Regarding punctuation, that is essentially my understanding as well. Interestingly, the 1899 Douay-Rheims Bible does not place the words in parentheses. My Latin is pretty rusty but I don’t think the comments are even in the Latin Vulgate. I wish I had the resources and knowledge to check a primary source – i.e. Dead Sea scrolls. It still gave me pause for thought since that would make these comments the only times Matthew or Mark felt the need to tell their potential readers to, in essence, try to understand.
I agree it would seem strange in a regular address to an audience; but, Jesus was not speaking to a crowd, rather giving a private explanation to His disciples. I could see Him glancing sidelong to a scribe and saying it then. Mark records the event yet doesn’t even place himself there to hear it – see Mark 13:3. Matthew doesn’t specify – Matthew 24:3. If the words were added later – after 70 A.D. - I wonder then if it is a case of “see we told you so”.
Of course, this issue addresses only Matthew and Mark and not the comment in Revelation. Again, thank you, it is food for thought.

In Brotherly Love,

Wayne

https://thepathtolight.com/
http://christianssearchandrescue.blogspot.com/