
If Jesus is possessive without being plural, it should read "Jesus's", right? (e.g. "Jesus's mother, Mary.)
I'm assuming that there must be some exception to this? So often I see this written as "Jesus' ".
Is there some rule where its determined by how many "S" sounds the word makes or something?
I read that possessive Biblical names ending in "S" always end with an apostrophe. ? Is this correct? I'd never heard that before.
I hope that this doesn't sound too ignorant.


It seems to be written as "Jesus' " so often that I am wondering if I'm missing some golden rule/exception or something.
Thank you for any insight that you can offer.
